1. Consider the following statements: (1) Self-governing village communities were created in India during colonial times in the form of ‘sabhas’. (2) Elected local government bodies were created after 1882; called as Local Boards. (3) Panchayats were established in a number of provinces following the enactment of the Government of India Act, 1919. Which of the statements given above is/are correct? (a) 1 only (b) 2 only (c) 2 and 3 only (d) None of the above Ans: (c) Explanation: ● Statement 1 is incorrect- Self-governing village communities existed in India from the earliest times, not only during British rule, in the form of ‘sabhas’ (village assemblies). In the course of time, these village bodies took the shape of Panchayats (an assembly of five persons) and these Panchayats resolved issues at the village level. ● Statement 2 is correct- In modern times, elected local government bodies were created after 1882. Lord Rippon, who was the Viceroy of India at that time, took the initiative in creating these bodies. They were called local boards. ● Statement 3 is correct: Under the Government of India Act 1919 local self government became a provincial subject. This trend continued after Government of India Act 1935. Source- XI NCERT Indian Constitution at Work; Page 179 2. In the context of ‘Cabinet of Central Government in India’, which of the following statements is/are correct? (1) The Cabinet takes decisions in the name of Council of Ministers. (2) The Indian Constitution mentions but does not define the Cabinet. Select the correct answer using the code given below: (a) 1 only (b) 2 only (c) Both 1 and 2 (d) Neither 1 nor 2 Ans: (a) Explanation: Statement 1 is correct. Cabinet Ministers are usually top-level leaders of the ruling party or parties who are in charge of the major ministries. Usually the Cabinet Ministers meet to take decisions in the name of the Council of Ministers. Cabinet is thus the inner ring of the Council of Ministers. It comprises about 20 ministers. Since it is not practical for all ministers to meet regularly and discuss everything, the decisions are taken in Cabinet meetings. That is why parliamentary democracy in most countries is often known as the Cabinet form of government. Statement 2 is incorrect. The Constitution both mentions and defines the term Cabinet. Article 352 defines the term ‘Cabinet’ as the council consisting of the Prime Minister and other ministers of the Cabinet rank. Source: NCERT Class 9th: Democratic Politics-I; chapter 5-Pg 87. 3. Consider the following statements: (1) The Indian Constitution has mandated the transfer of functions from the State government to Local governments. (2) The State Finance Commission would review the distribution of revenues between the State and local governments. (3) ‘Technical training and Vocational Education’ is the subject listed under Eleventh Schedule. Which of the statements given above are correct? (a) 1 and 2 only (b) 2 and 3 only (c) 1 and 3 only (d) 1, 2 and 3 Ans: (d) Explanation: The Constitution mandated the transfer of list of functions from the State government to Local Governments in 73rd and 74th Constitutional Amendments. Hence statement 1 is correct The State Government is required to appoint a State Finance Commission once in five years. State Finance Commission would examine the financial position of the local governments in the State. The State Finance Commission also reviews the distribution of revenues between the State and local governments on the one hand and between rural and urban local governments on the other. Hence statement 2 is correct. Technical training and vocational education is the subject listed in Eleventh Schedule along with other important subjects like family welfare, poverty alleviation program, public distribution system. Source: XI NCERT Indian Constitution at Work; Page- 186. 4. With reference to ‘Fundamental Rights and Legal Rights’, which of the following statements is/are correct? (1) Both Fundamental Rights and other Legal Rights are protected and guaranteed by the Indian Constitution. (2) A person can directly approach the Supreme Court only for enforcement of Fundamental Rights and not in case of Legal Rights. (3) While restrictions can be put on Legal Rights by the Parliament, Fundamental Rights are absolute. Select the correct answer using the code given below: (a) 1 only (b) 2 only (c) 1 and 3 only (d) 1, 2 and 3 Ans: (b) Explanation: Statement 1 is incorrect- While ordinary legal rights are protected and enforced by ordinary law, Fundamental Rights are protected and guaranteed by the constitution of the country. Ordinary rights may be changed by the Legislature by ordinary process of law making, but a fundamental right may only be changed by amending the Constitution itself. Statement 2 is correct- Under Article 32 and 226, a person can directly approach the Supreme Court or the High Court for enforcement of Fundamental Rights but for Legal Rights he must go through procedures provided in statute. Statement 3 is incorrect - Executive as well as Legislative actions can be declared illegal by the Judiciary if these violate the Fundamental Rights or restrict them in an unreasonable manner. However, Fundamental Rights are not absolute or unlimited rights. Government can put reasonable restrictions on the exercise of our Fundamental Rights. Source: 11th NCERT Indian Constitution at Work; Page no.28,29. 5. With reference to ‘Composition and Functions of Election Commission of India’, consider the following statements: (1) The Indian Constitution provides security of tenure to Chief Election Commissioner (CEC) but not to Election Commissioners. (2) The Chief Election Commissioner (CEC) has more powers and can overturn decisions made by Election Commissioners. Which of the statements given above is/are correct? (a) 1 only (b) 2 only (c) Both 1 and 2 (d) Neither 1 nor 2 Ans: (d) Statement 1 is incorrect: Both Chief Election Commissioner (CEC) and other Election Commissioners have security of tenure provided in the Constitution. However, they can be removed before the expiry of their term by the President. Statement 2 is incorrect: CEC presides over Election Commission, but does not have more powers than the other Election Commissioners. CEC and other Election Commissioners have equal powers to take all decisions relating to elections in India Source: Indian Constitution at Work, Class 11(NCERT), page no 69.

1. Which of the following chemicals causes methaemoglobinaemia? (a) Nitrates (b) Sulphates (c) Carbonates (d) Phosphates Answer: (a) Explanation: High nitrate drinking water is associated with Methaemoglobinaemia in which ferrous iron in haemoglobin is oxidized from ferrous to ferric form. MetHb (Methaemoglobin) cannot bind oxygen causing symptoms of cyanosis and drowsiness. 2. In the context of Nitrogen Cycle, Soil Nitrates are transformed into free Nitrogen by which of the following types of bacteria? (a) Denitrifying bacteria (b) Nitrifying bacteria (c) Ammonifying bacteria (d) None of the above Answer: (a) Explanation: Denitrifying bacteria are a diverse group of bacteria together with denitrifying fungi and archaea, is capable of performing denitrification as part of the nitrogen cycle. They metabolise nitrogenous compounds using various enzymes, turning nitrogen oxides back to nitrogen gas or nitrous oxide. Source: https://enviroliteracy.org/air-climate-weather/biogeochemical- cycles/nitrogen-cycle/ 3. Which of the following fundamental forces of nature between particles is weakest? (a) Electromagnetic force (b) Strong Nuclear force (c) Weak Nuclear force (d) Gravitational force Answer: (d) Explanation: The four fundamental forces of nature are considered to be the gravitational force, the electromagnetic force, which has residual effects, the weak nuclear force, and the strong nuclear force. Each of these forces reacts only on certain particles, and has its own range and force carrier, the particles that transmit the force, by traveling between the affected particles. Gravitational force is the weakest of the four fundamental forces. Ordered from strongest to weakest, the forces are 1) the strong nuclear force, 2) the electromagnetic force, 3) the weak nuclear force, and 4) gravitational force. Source: http://webhome.phy.duke.edu/~kolena/modern/forces.html 4. With reference to the “National Cyber Coordination Centre (NCCC)", consider the following statements: (1) It is a multi-stakeholder body and comes under the Indian Computer Emergency Response Team (CERT-In), the Ministry of Electronics and Information Technology. (2) It derives its powers from the Information Technology Act, 2000. Which of the statements given above is/are correct? (a) 1 only (b) 2 only (c) Both 1 and 2 (d) Neither 1 nor 2 Answer: (c) Explanation: Both the given statements are correct. ➢ NCCC is a multi-stakeholder cyber-security and e-surveillance agency ➢ It comes under the Indian Computer Emergency Response Team (CERT-In), Union Ministry of Electronics and Information Technology. ➢ It has powers under the Indian constitution with provision of section 69B of the Information Technology Act, 2000 ➢ It will be India's first layer for cyber threat monitoring and all communication with the government as well as the private service providers will be monitored round the clock ➢ Its mandate is to scan internet traffic and communication metadata (which are little snippets of information hidden inside each communication) coming into the country to detect real-time cyber threats. Source: https://timesofindia.indiatimes.com/india/govt-sets-up-cyber-coordination- centre-to-address-cyber-security-threats/articleshow/63614415.cms http://pib.nic.in/newsite/PrintRelease.aspx?relid=186760 5. The Indian Space Research Organisation (ISRO) is planning to launch the first solar mission, Aditya-L1. Aditya-L1 mission is aimed at studying the Sun from an orbit around the Sun-Earth Lagrangian point 1 (L1). What is Lagrangian Point? (a) It is a point on outer layers of the Sun, extending to thousands of km above the disc (photosphere) having very high temperature. (b) It is the point where the combined gravitational force of two large bodies is equal to the centrifugal force that is felt by a third body which is relatively smaller. (c) It is a point in near Sun at which the solar wind meets the interstellar medium or solar wind from other stars. (d) A point which is equidistant from the Sun and the Earth. Answer: (b) Explanation: • Aditya-L1, India’s maiden mission to the Sun, will be launched in 2019. The main aim of the solar mission is to improve our understanding of “dynamical processes of the sun,” and help resolve some outstanding questions in solar physics. • The satellite carrying six payloads will be launched from Sriharikota in Andhra Pradesh on the PSLV- XL launch vehicle. It will be launched into the halo orbit around the Lagrangian point 1 (L1) of the Sun-Earth system. • It is the point where the combined gravitational force of two large bodies is equal to the centrifugal force that is felt by a third body which is relatively smaller. • This orbit has the advantage of allowing continuous monitoring of the sun. ISRO has over the years led from the front to involve industry from the drawing board to the launch pad as a valued partner in many aspects of our space programme. Source: https://www.isro.gov.in/aditya-l1-first-indian-mission-to-study-sun

1. Consider the following statements: (1) A high foreign exchange rate may increase the export of a country. (2) A Trade surplus in an economy may help to appreciate its currency. (3) A rise in interest rates in a country is often accompanied with depreciation of domestic currency. Which of the statements given above are correct? (a) 1 and 2 only (b) 2 and 3 only (c) 1 and 3 only (d) 1, 2 and 3 Answer: (a) Explanation: Statement 1 is correct. A rise in price of foreign exchange will reduce the foreigner’s cost (in terms of USD) while purchasing products from a country. This increases the export of country. Statement 2 is correct. A Trade surplus means that the export of a country is greater than its imports. The export of a country helps in bringing foreign currency. So surplus trade of balance trade surplus will bring more foreign currency. As a result of which the domestic currency will appreciate. Statement 3 is incorrect. The rise in the interest rates at home often leads to shortage of money/currency supply in an economy due to more demand of the domestic currency (both from the domestic and foreign players) in expectation of higher returns in private market, thereby leads to an appreciation of the domestic currency. Source: NCERT XII, Macroeconomics, PG- 91, 92, 93 2. Which of the following is the best description of the term 'deficit financing', which was in the news recently? (a) It is the excess of government's current expenditure over its current revenue. (b) It is the difference of borrowing from external and internal resources. (c) It is an excess of government's total expenditure over its total revenue. (d) It is the capital expenditure on items of public contractions and public borrowings. Answer: (c) Explanation: Deficit financing is the budgetary situation where expenditure is higher than the revenue. It is a practice adopted for financing the excess expenditure with outside resources. The expenditure-revenue gap is financed by either printing of currency or through borrowing. Nowadays most governments, both in the developed and developing world, are having deficit budgets and these deficits are often financed through borrowing. Hence the fiscal deficit is the ideal indicator of deficit financing. Source: https://www.indianeconomy.net/splclassroom/what-is-deficit-financing- what-are-the-different-types-of-deficits-in-the-budget/ 3. Consider the following statements regarding options: (1) Under call options, the option writer has the obligation to buy the underlying asset at the specified price (2) Under call options, the option holder has the right to buy the underlying asset at the specified price. (3) Under the put options, option seller has the obligation to sell the underlying asset at the specified price Which of the statements given above is/are correct? (a) 1 and 2 only (b) 2 only (c) 1 and 3 only (d) 1, 2 and 3 Answer: (b) Explanation: Under Call options, the option writer/option seller has the obligation to sell the underlying asset (to the option holder) at the specified price. Thus statement 1 is incorrect. Under call options, the option holder/option buyer has the right to buy the underlying asset at the specified price. Thus statement 2 is correct. Under the Put options, option seller/option writer has the obligation to buy the underlying asset (from the option holder) at the specified price. Thus statement 3 is also incorrect. Source: https://www.investopedia.com/terms/c/calloption.asp 4. Consider the following statements: (1) The Indian Strategic Petroleum Reserve (ISPR) is an emergency fuel store of total 5 MMT (million metric tons) of strategic crude oil enough to provide 10 days of consumption. (2) India’s strategic crude oil storages are located at Vishakhapatnam, Mangalore and Padur, and two more will be set up in Odisha and Rajasthan as part of the second phase. Which of the statements given above is/are correct? (a) 1 only (b) 2 only (c) Both 1 and 2 (d) Neither 1 nor 2 Answer: (c) Explanation: Statement 1 is correct. The Indian Strategic Petroleum Reserve (ISPR) is an emergency fuel store of total 5 MMT (million metric tons) of strategic crude oil enough to provide 10 days of consumption. The historic first cargo of crude oil from the Abu Dhabi National Oil Company (ADNOC), destined for the Indian Strategic Petroleum Reserves Ltd (ISPRL) has been loaded and is En-route to India. Statement 2 is correct. India’s strategic crude oil storages are located at Vizag (1.33 million tonnes), Mangalore (1.5 million tonnes) and Padur (2.5 million tonnes). The reserves are maintained by the Indian Strategic Petroleum Reserves Limited. In the 2017-18 budget, it was announced that two more such caverns will be set up Chandikhole in Jajpur district of Odisha and Bikaner in Rajasthan as part of the second phase. Source: Economic Growth and Development; page-79. 5. Which of the following does not include liberalization of foreign trade for any country? (1) Domestic content requirements (2) Removal of custom duties (3) Removal of excise duties (4) Easing up of trade sanctions Select the correct answer using the code given below: (a) 1 and 3 only (b) 2 and 4 only (c) 2 and 3 only (d) 1, 2 and 3 only Answer: (a) Explanation: Removing barriers or restrictions set by the government is known as liberalization. Statement 1 is correct. Domestic content requirement means that some firm has to mandatorily source some percentage of its input from local sources. This will increase restrictions on import and hence does not include liberalization. Statement 2 is incorrect. Customs duties are a type of tax charged on goods from outside the country. Removal of custom duties will remove restrictions and hence is included in liberalization. Statement 3 is correct. An excise duty is a type of tax charged on goods produced within the country. Their removal will not cause liberalization as these are not related to foreign trade. Statement 4 is incorrect. Sanctions are a type of Non-tariff barrier to trade. Easing up of sanctions will lead to liberalization. Source: X NCERT: Understanding Economic Development: Chapter 4: Globalization and Indian Economy Page 64 + general economics concepts.